Oops... should be "If the French can use the objective, why not English speakers also?"

It is not necessary to drag other languages into this discussion. English isn't determined based on Danish, Latin, or any other language. The sentence "It is I" does not at all sound stilted, pedantic, and unnatural to me. "It's I" definitely does sound stilted, pedantic, and unnatural to me.

The claim for using the nominative with a copula is from Latin, as is the claim not to split an infinitive, since in Latin an infinitive is one word. We are not bound by Latin, just as we are not bound by German or Danish.

If we are open to dragging another language in, let's note that in French, which much more is related to Latin than is English, the objective comes after the copula, as in "C'est moi." If the French can use the nominative, why not English speakers also? As a matter of fact, I dare say a survey based solely on unguarded usage would show that "It is me" far exceeds "It is I." Even so, I would caution those who claim usage dictates grammar rules. If that were true, we would accept "He drives slow" and "I could care less," each a clear mistake, not correct grammar or formation.

That's the trouble...
It sounds odd to hear "I only ever had a bicycle, never a car" instead of "I have only had a bicycle, never a car" or "I never have had a car, only a bicycle."

I'll try posting half the text...
In the U.S., "I only ever" isn't heard, or if it is, the English teacher objects. We just say "I have only" or "I never have".

"Invalid form submission" repeats. Whazup wid dat?