“I’ve got” vs. “I have”
Is there not a redundancy in the use of “got” with “have”? Why say “I have got” or “I’ve got” when “I have” conveys the exact meaning? The same would be true of its use in the second or third person.
Your Pain Is Our Pleasure
24-Hour Proofreading Service—We proofread your Google Docs or Microsoft Word files. We hate grammatical errors with a passion. Learn More
Your Pain Is Our Pleasure
24-Hour Proofreading Service—We proofread your Google Docs or Microsoft Word files. We hate grammatical errors with a passion. Learn More
Is there not a redundancy in the use of “got” with “have”? Why say “I have got” or “I’ve got” when “I have” conveys the exact meaning? The same would be true of its use in the second or third person.
Another example of where phrase/context/meaning may be at odds is "How are you?". This is often more politeness rather than a real enquiry. Answering with anything other than "fine" or "good" may not be what is sought.
Likewise, the waitress, the receptionist, the yoga teacher may greet you with a "friendly" intonation, and a smile. It does not mean they would welcome a date. In fact their real attitude beneath the "professional" overly may be hard to determine.
Intonation conveys attitude, part of the meta-data of speech; but it is more difficult to research; and hard to teach to English learners whose native intontion patterns may be quite different. Try watching Vladimir Putin, or Ban Ki Moon; the smile/non-smile and intonations convey perhaps the wrong message to native English speakers
jayles the unwoven Dec-30-2014
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
On usage, the Cambridge Grammar of English (p883) states:
The present tense form of have with got used for possession is more than twice as frequent in spoken BrE as in AmE:
•I've got one sister and one brother. (BrE)
•I have a cousin who never married. (AmE)
On formality, Swan in Practical English Usage (p230) states:
Got forms are especially common in an informal style. ... In very informal American speech, people may drop 've before got. I('ve) got a problem.
Hadi Nov-07-2015
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
Although the addition of "got" may not follow the strictest syntax rules I believe it's use can be justified here because it serves as an intensifier that emphasizes the need to act is greater than the use of "have" alone connotes.
Also, when the contraction "I've" is used then the addition of "got" improves the word structure sonically by preserving the normal rhythm of a sentence because the contraction works as a single word that serves as the noun, or rather, pronoun of the sentence and leaves a need for another verb.
Mark Bolles Nov-22-2015
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
Use of the word "got" in written English is not wrong.
It is just a sign of the poorly educated.
As soon as I read the word "got" or "get" in a document, I know immediately the sort of person I am dealing with.
Alanfromcopthorne Mar-22-2016
1 vote Permalink Report Abuse
What sentence would you rather use? I have the music in me. or I've got the music in me.
Sandie Jul-06-2016
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
@Sandie
Neither, because I don't have the music in me.
user106928 Jul-08-2016
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
The use of 'got' in a clause describing possession of something, such as 'I have got a pen', is superfluous. 'I have a pen' is just fine and indicates a brevity and clarity of thought that eludes many people. It may also indicate the influence of other languages. In French 'I have' is normal. I'm not sure how you would say 'I have got' in French. In fact in French you don't need the addition of 'got' to convey meaning or emphasis. French does seem to have a brevity that English has lost over the years. Around 60% of the English vocabulary originates from French. The Norman invasion of 1066 established French as the language of nobility and government, Latin was the language of the Church and Anglo-Saxon was for the commoners.
I am an Englishman who has spent many years learning English so I feel I am entitled to criticise the language and especially those who use it badly. Perhaps it's the Germanic influence on English that has caused the gradual creep of 'got'. American English has certainly been a big influence on the language. A good example of how American English has been a positive influence eludes me at the moment but I do know they exist. The German language had a big influence on American English and in my opinion this comes through in expressions such as 'gotten'. It's a natural progression on the word got but it definitely grates on the British ear.
The next time I watch a British movie of the 1930s or 1940s I will note the use of the word 'got', although the scripted dialogue may not be a good indicator of common usage.
Grammar is the set of rules used to govern the use of spoken and written words. As with all rules, some are so rarely enforced that they wither on the vine of principles until extinct.
Gary NICHOLLS Aug-25-2016
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
@gary Curiously, translating English into French usually makes the text at least fifteen percent longer:
http://www.media-lingo.com/gb/faqs/will-the-translated-version-be-longer-or-shorter-than-the-original-document
jayles the uncle Aug-25-2016
1 vote Permalink Report Abuse
I was taught that the "got," in "I've got," Is redundant and that " I have," is shorter and correct.
I wonder how the hard-on-the-ears "I've got," became acceptable.
Marion Fossler Nov-18-2016
3 votes Permalink Report Abuse
Goofy is wrong wrong wrong! First of all, "got" is the past tense of "to get." Second, juxtaposing "have" with "got" is bad English, even if the President does routingly. You would never answer "i got three dollars in my pocket" when asked how much money you have in your pocket. To say "have gotten" would be OK to convey that you have obtained something.
To all of those who think "have got to go" i have news for you, "gotta" is also bad English for adults. 11/20/2016.
Lawpilot Nov-20-2016
2 votes Permalink Report Abuse
Goofy is wrong wrong wrong! First of all, "got" is the past tense of "to get." Second, juxtaposing "have" with "got" is bad English, even if the President does routingly. You would never answer "i got three dollars in my pocket" when asked how much money you have in your pocket. To say "have gotten" would be OK to convey that you have obtained something.
To all of those who think "have got to go" i have news for you, "gotta" is also bad English for adults. 11/20/2016.
Lawpilot Nov-20-2016
2 votes Permalink Report Abuse
Try "I have gotten...."
Ralph Malph Nov-26-2016
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
@Ralph Malph
"I have gotten...."??
No thanks!
user106928 Dec-03-2016
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
Ang ive got a
Do you like this skateboard
I havent got
Natalka Jan-26-2017
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
I haven't got a clue!
I got my first real six string, bought is at the five'n'dime, etc
Seamus Aug-03-2017
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
If you can substitute 'got' with 'fetched' in your sentence, you are not using 'got' incorrectly.
BestGary Sep-24-2017
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
@Jim - Sorry, dude - but where did you learn English?
"have (present tense) and got (past tense) do not belong next to each other
period"
That is sooooo incorrect.
Got is the 3rd form of get (get, got, got) in British English (aka world English)
'Have got' is actually the present perfect. It explains that I got something in the past and I still have it now.
End of - Mike drop!
Robgprice Nov-23-2017
3 votes Permalink Report Abuse
Whenever they do the weather report on our local news, they always say we "got" 75 degrees, or we "got" a chance of rain, etc. It drives me up the wall. I think it just sounds more educated if they would say we "have" 75° or, we "have" rain coming, but that's just me.
Mchatow Apr-28-2018
1 vote Permalink Report Abuse
How about ......"I hope you got to use the new car" (ie. "I hope you were allowed, permitted, had a chance, etc. to use the new car")? Is this acceptable grammar for the word got?
Cheers,
Bob.
UncleBob Feb-27-2019
1 vote Permalink Report Abuse
I have been told by my British friends that "have got" means the same as "have gotten" which is considered a bit archaic there. But in that usage, they are the past perfect tense of "get".
user108090 Jul-17-2019
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
I have means to possess
( I have a dog )
I got means to obtain
( I got a dog )
PET PEEVE!!
Marion Fossler Jul-17-2019
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
It shold have been me?
user108315 Oct-18-2019
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
Thank you!
user108397 Nov-10-2019
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
I’m still learning English and I was confused about this (I have vs I’ve got), but you all have different opinions. The questions is, can I use what I want? Are both correct?
Nightingale Dec-04-2020
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
Thank you SO much for clarifying/correcting "have got." The use of got in phrases such as I've got drives me mad! When you say that you are essentially saying "I have got" and "got" is redundant and totally unnecessary. I have come to detest the word "got!" ????
frandancer Nov-15-2021
1 vote Permalink Report Abuse
It is redundant to use "got" when "have" already indicates possession.
It also is not pleasing to the ear; it sounds clumsy.
user111138 Nov-25-2021
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
Goofy, of course the word "redundant" doesn't mean "incorrect," duh. But in language redundant things just ARE incorrect.
HelloKittyFanMan Apr-22-2022
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
No, 106928, of course that "have" is not redundant with the word "got." It's not the same kind of "have" as the possessing kind. It's more like a participle form. Would it be present participle? I'm not really sure, but something like that. But I just know that it's not the same form of "have" as if to show possession.
HelloKittyFanMan Apr-22-2022
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
Oh, but to add to that: neither do I know why sometimes people prefer that format over the simpler "I have."
HelloKittyFanMan Apr-22-2022
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse
I’m learning another language that does not allow the have/possess verb to be used in present simple. Present perfect is necessary. I won’t go into the reasons here, but it got me thinking about English.
Is there a relationship between the auxiliary “have” for the present perfect and the verb “have” used for possession? Or another way, did one lead to the other? Which came into use first, “I have a chicken” or “I have got a chicken”?
MrMike Aug-14-2022
0 vote Permalink Report Abuse