Lisa, thanks for the kudos. Appreciate it.

I'd like to add that the reason is not perfectly obvious why the "who" is ambiguous. You would never construct a sentence, "He is lost who knows exactly where I'm going."

But you might have a case like, "He is wise who knows exactly what I'm doing." (In other words, "If a man knows what I'm doing, he is wise.") If you then insert the "unlike me" so that you have "He is wise, unlike me, who knows exactly what I'm doing," the ambiguity is much more apparent.

I have to disagree with you on something else, though. "He doesn't" in the given example is not a sentence fragment for two simple reasons:

1) It is part of an existing sentence. Sentence fragments are made to look like sentences by the fact that they stand on their own with a period at the end. Sentence fragments look like this: This sort of thing. In a minute. Very good. Silly me.

2) Even if it did stand on its own, it would be a complete (though minimal) sentence, with a proper noun subject (He) and verb predicate (doesn't).

The sentence by R. Helms is perfectly functional, though not very attractive. Makes my head spin. There's nothing grammatically wrong with it, though.

Goossun, I could not answer the question about silent P any better than the writer at this page:

http://www.kith.org/logos/words/lower3/kkknight.html

Briefly, the silent P in "psychology" is the result of Latin borrowing from Greek. In Greek, the P was pronounced. In Latin, the two sounds P and S never naturally occurred together.

My theory for why the S stayed is that it was closest to the vowel in the syllable. If you try to pronounce PS words with both the P and the S, you might see why I think so. I don't know the "official" theory. Anyone?

As far as the silent K is concerned, you should see this answer:

http://www.linguistlist.org/~ask-ling/archive-1997.10/msg00548.html

Essentially, the K was pronounced as recently as the 1400s. But the rest of the word might have been different, too. In the word "knight," for example, the word would have been pronounced more like the German word "Knecht" (yes, in German the K and N are both pronounced), rather than like the English word "night" with a K on it.

It's not known why the K was dropped in English. Other languages, such as German, Dutch, and Greek, don't seem to have a problem with it.

I'm still brushing ashes out of my hair after the last time I said this, but it turns out neither way is incorrect at the moment. Just be consistent within your document (don't mix them) and stay with the style preferred by the entity for whom you are writing the document (such as your school, business, or publisher).

Me, I put a comma where I stop when reading the series aloud. You don't usually say "apples (break) orangesnpears;" you say, "apples (break) oranges (break) and pears."

(strides into battle waving a pen and yelling, "Comma before conjunction!")

Try this on:

"He is lost, but I know exactly where I'm going."

Not enough emphasis on the difference? What about this:

"He is lost. I, however, know exactly where I'm going."

I think in my family we'd make up something like "Jewish-y" for the concept Jonathan playfully describes. At least I know that's what I would say, and my grandmother would immediately understand. :)

Dammit :) You can always tell it's me typing when I switch the vowels in "because."

Becuase we were too busy answering the question to engage in vicious and unnecessary nitpicking.

R Helms, I'm going to wild guess that you are in your late fifties to early sixties?

My first-tier sources (a bunch of engineers for an international company, my dad, and the Internet) tell me that the word "Oriental," as applied to people and not to Oriental food, was not strictly speaking correct as far back as the 50's. But it's more likely that TV coverage of the Vietnam War, Korean War, and Communist Red China, along with heightened multicultural sensibilities at that time, led people to differentiate between "Japanese," "Chinese," "Vietnamese," and "Korean."

More later if I think of it (meeting this morning).

My dad pronounces it very slightly (his first language is not English), probably because he pronounced it wrong in the first place and never quite corrected himself. My mom (native English speaker) used to argue with him about it.

As a result, I pronounce it so slightly that instead of actually being an L, it's more like a premature closing of the O. I'm certainly not saying that this is correct.

Hmmm. Interesting.

Yeah. Found this...

http://www.eu25.org/html/events/athina.htm

Relevant quotation from the page: "Grotowski also developed the „Paratheater“ or as he called it „project-events“ and „active culture“ , a form we today refer to as „events“." Nice mix of Continental and U.S. punctuation there. :)